jeffandgop

No one is asserting that the successful application by some tax filers to not be required to pay U.S. tax based on their justification per the U.S. Thailand Tax treaty represents as a "tax haven"; and that you have "not heard" that there are- or are not- tax filers doing the same in other foreign countries with a similar tax treaty does not lend any credence to Thailand necessarily being the only foreign country where US citizens may enjoy this limited benefit.

I was part of that discussion back in 2019 as I too was considering filing amended returns to recover taxes I had paid on my 401K withdrawals. I made the decision to proceed with filing to recover those taxes on the basis of the Thailand-US Tax Treaty and engaged AITA and filed 4 years worth of amended returns. Two of the amended returns were rejected; one for "You did not provide a correct treaty"; and the other because "You did not indicate an inappropriate Tax Treaty". Both explanations were nonsense since my returns absolutely included a full and complete Form 8833 and supporting documentation. I did not receive at that time any letters from the IRS regarding the other two amended returns. I decided to try to call the IRS and 3 days after receiving those two letters reached a supervisor of the tax office handling these types of amended returns. On a Saturday in the U.S. no less. After checking my amended returns in the system, the supervisor acknowledged that the agents who issued those rejection letters were in error and that all 4 amended returns were complete and that she would re-assign all 4 amended returns to her desk for processing. I received all 4 refunds within the following 4 weeks. I have never received any other requests or followups from the IRS. I've never been audited. The best authority is NOT the tax treaty itself. The best authority is how the IRS APPLIES the tax treaty to tax filers. To say that those taxpayers who have been successful only because a junior IRS agent made a mistake is argumentative and not in evidence.

Thank you but no, that is not correct in this instance. The bank will loan/fund the Buyer's account that the bank requires the Buyer to set up. The Buyer is really a Borrower at this point. They are borrowing from the bank using the car as collateral for a personal loan. That's why I will be transferring title to the Buyer first. The bank will apply a lien against the asset so that the Buyer/Borrower cannot sell the car until the loan is paid off. The bank is neither buying the car or paying me directly. The account name is in the name of the Buyer/Borrower. My "security" to be willing to transfer title before receiving payment includes (1) holding the Buyer/Borrower's account passbook and ATM card so they cannot access the money without me that the bank will put in the account the day after the transfer; (2) holding the Buyer's Blue Book; (3) retaining the car; and (4) receiving 35% down payment before title transfer. Only after I go to the bank with the Buyer to withdraw the newly placed funds in the Buyer's account does Buyer get possession of everything I will be holding on to.

Normally my experience as well. Here in Thailand the bank will put in lien in the Blue Book

Really? My question should invite or accept replies that don't answer the question and if I don't want non-responsive answers I have no right to post a question in the first place?

Correction. It should be "money first to the Seller then the transfer of the property or goods to the Buyer. "

What is arrogant is your posture that I should welcome unsolicited advice. You, as some others, have not cared to address the specific question which is not "What Would You Do" nor "How Would You Do It" or "What is Your Opinion on this Sales Process". Because this process is different than the standard, I have asked the community only if anyone has gone through the same or if they know this process is normal in Thailand where a Buyer needs a bank loan. That, and only that, is the information I am seeking. Yes, it seems "far off normality", but there is a person in this thread who replied that they did have a similar experience; and the Buyer's bank's own website describes their process in loaning funds to Buyer's of used cars- they have to have ownership first and it's then a loan to the Buyer/Owner up to the value of the asset and the asset is the collateral.

I also keep the ATM card....

Correct. And the bank is using the auto as the collateral requiring the car to be in the Buyer's name BEFORE giving the Buyer the loan to pay me, the Seller....at the time of the Blue Book Transfer to the Buyer's name, I will be retaining/possessing: 1. Buyer's passbook of the account Buyer had to open per the bank which will deposit the loan amount into the account. 2. The "sold" car's Blue Book. 3. The car itself. Only after the bank has put the funds into Seller's account (24 hours after the Blue Book transfer) and it is subsequently withdrawn and given to me will I turnover/release to the Buyer the Blue Book and the car.

This is where you got it incorrect. The process I described in my original post is that I am being required to transfer to the Buyer title to the car BEFORE reaching any money- in fact, the process will require I wait at least 24 hours after transferring the title to receive the payment for the car....it is me, the Seller, that the transfer results in a quick payment.

You are not understanding the limited scope of my query. I know I can go to MY bank and ask what THEIR process is. I know what the prospective Seller's bank process is- a different bank than mine. And we all know from experience that how processes are defined are not always what occurs. That is why my question is- and remains- has anyone had an experience with the process I have described? I am not asking for any other advice. I am fully acquainted with what is the experience most of have had- money first to the Seller then the transfer of the property or goods to the Seller. This is the opposite. That's why I am "asking strangers" if they have had a similar experience. Nothing more. Nothing less. Not eliciting opinions from anyone that hasn't actually gone through the process I have described in my original posting. Nothing arrogant. Just trying to focus the conversation.

I'm the Seller...are you suggesting that my Q is indicating a lack of "good faith" on my part?

Sounds like the loan was given without the truck being collateral or any lien against the title by the bank....

What bank and when did this occur? Thanks!!

If I told you it was normal, would you proceed ? Yes. And thank you for your input.

Gentlemen: With all due respect, I am not seeking advice on HOW it should be done. My posting would indicate I am questioning the process as I laid out and asking persons who KNOW whether this is normal in Thailand or not. Alternatively, if you have specific EXPERIENCE selling your car to a third party who had to obtain a bank loan to purchase the car and their process was different, then I would appreciate those specifics.

Selling my used car. No liens, etc. Buyer has to get a bank loan to finance the purchase. Bank rep came yesterday to check my car and verify there VIN. Bank rep said the process is for the Seller, Buyer & Bank Rep to go to the DLT where the Buyer transfers car ownership to the Bank via recording the transfer in the Blue Book. No money from the Buyer/Bank to the Seller during this transaction. Seller, no longer the owner of the car, walks away with the updated Blue Book and the car at this time and Buyer's new passbook (see next para.). Then, in a few days time, the Bank funds the loan amount to the Buyer, Buyer having earlier created a new account with the Bank for the bank loan. The account passbook and ATM card has given to the Buyer at the DLT when the Blue Book is updated. Once the bank loan money is in the account then the Buyer will withdraw the amount, give to Seller, who then turns over the Blue Book and car to the Buyer. Is this the normal process? Changing the ownership of the car to the bank and then the Seller waits for the money to be paid in good faith?

This works... https://extranet.immigration.go.th/fn24online/

On Thursday the PWA engaged in some major waterworks in the area and it was announced that the water would be turned off from 10AM to 8PM for the work to be accomplished. The affected areas included from approximately Maejo U to Outer Ring Road along 1001.....

I am the registered owner and the city is Bangkok where I used to reside and where I purchased the car new originally. The Blue Book has that Bangkok address where I had lived.

I am selling my Honda CRV. I live in Chiang Mai and my DL has my Chiang Mai address and I also have a Yellow Tambien Baan with my Chiang Mai address. The car was originally purchased in Bangkok and has a Bangkok license plate. The Buyer lives in Chiang Mai as well. How do I transact the sale with the Land Transport Office here in Chiang Mai? I'm being told I have to drive the car to the Bangkok Land Transport Office in order to accomplish the sale!!???

I am selling my Honda CRV. I live in Chiang Mai and my DL has my Chiang Mai address and I also have a Yellow Tambien Baan with my Chiang Mai address. The car was originally purchased in Bangkok and has a Bangkok license plate. The Buyer lives in Chiang Mai as well. How do I transact the sale with the Land Transport Office here in Chiang Mai? I'm being told I have to drive the car to the Bangkok Land Transport Office in order to accomplish the sale!!???

I have read the June 2020 updated issued from the Royal Thai Police. Thank you Ubonjoe. I conclude that so long as I return to the CM residence of record as registered in my TM30 before my current annual extension of stay expires (April 2022), then I would not have to update THAT TM30 upon my return. It is still the responsibility of the house owner or landlord to submit to immigration my presence here in Samui. However, a 90-day report can only be submitted to the immigration office located in the jurisdiction of your registered address. Samui IO was correct to update my TM30 registered residence in order to process my 90 day report. (I only went to Samui to do ta 90 day report as I would be officially late after tomorrow- 5 days before my return to CM.). When I return to CM I will have to update my TM30 registered address back to my address I permanently reside in. Thanks for your inputs.

Understood. Please if you have anything that to show that rule change I'd appreciate it.

90 day mistake. ok. and I did try to do it online...the last two periods when it was due I tried online and the dreaded "report to imm" was the response. so beyond the 90 day, the Q is still the TM30 regulatory requirement to when updates/changes are required. Have I "changed my address" by visiting another province for 2 months? If "no" where can I find something from immigration authorities that support this condition?