I have already answered that but you are using the tactic of demanding that i accept a very narrow definition that suits your purpose just as you did with U Turn and Manifesto in another thread.
The board can judge for itself as to whether the rise of the Nazis was a function of conditions in Germany post 1918 in part caused by the terms of the Treaty of Versailles, or whether as you suggest, if there was not a specific clause in the treaty of Versailles calling for the formation of the Nazi party the rise of the Nazis cannot be blamed on the terms of the Treaty (see how ridiculous you sound?, and everyone on the board can see it).
As for citing Henry Ford, I deliberately chose that example to illustrate that anti Jewish views were not confined to Germany and seemingly actually fairly mainstream (was Henry Ford regarded as an extremist at the time?). In the UK, antisemitism seemingly started with Edward I.
I think I threw it out but Bernard Baruchs autobiography has a photo of him with Henry Ford who he describes in the book as a good friend. Baruch as you know, was pivotal in the formation of Israel post WW2. Whether the friendship in the 20's ended with Ford's views in the 30's I don't know.