April 25, 200718 yr I was told by my accountant, that I cannot have a thai person that is married to a farang as a shareholder? is this correct?, or rather I could but they would be taking part of my 49% shares, which is totally defeating the object. Any advice please
April 25, 200718 yr I was told by my accountant, that I cannot have a thai person that is married to a farang as a shareholder? is this correct?, or rather I could but they would be taking part of my 49% shares, which is totally defeating the object.Any advice please No, that is incorrect that she cannot be a shareholder. If she is still a Thai citizen, then she is viewed as a Thai and forms part of the 51% shares. But if legally she is no longer a Thai, then she is just like you being part of that 49%.
April 25, 200718 yr Author She has adopted a 'farang' name, but i would assume that she is still a thai citizen, as she is still living in thailand? still confused??
April 25, 200718 yr You need to find out if she is still a Thai citizen, if she is everything is fine(if you know you can trust her). All I can say is be very careful my wife is taking care of a court case (she is a Thai lawyer) for a foreigner now and he has been screwed so bad by every Thai that had anything to do with holding his shares, they are even blackmailing him and the court seems to be fine with it and they told him he can sue latter and press criminal charges however that will take about 3 years. I was thinking about getting involved with a Thai partner and owning (and paying for) 49% of a resort, when my wife took this case I very quickly changed my mind and decided not to quit my day job. Good luck.
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