February 3, 200917 yr We all know that a foreigner can only hold 49% of a company and 51% must be held by Thai shareholders. My question is can a company that is set as 49% foreign / 51% Thai act as the 51% ‘Thai” shareholder for another 49/51 company? I didn’t think this sounded right, but I’m being told that this is OK. Is this normal practice, or does this sound like it may cause problems in the future.
February 3, 200917 yr Author The answer is "yes". Thank you for your help. So this isn't that unusual after all.
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