BangnaBound Posted February 3, 2009 Share Posted February 3, 2009 We all know that a foreigner can only hold 49% of a company and 51% must be held by Thai shareholders. My question is can a company that is set as 49% foreign / 51% Thai act as the 51% ‘Thai” shareholder for another 49/51 company? I didn’t think this sounded right, but I’m being told that this is OK. Is this normal practice, or does this sound like it may cause problems in the future. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Indo-Siam Posted February 3, 2009 Share Posted February 3, 2009 The answer is "yes". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BangnaBound Posted February 3, 2009 Author Share Posted February 3, 2009 The answer is "yes". Thank you for your help. So this isn't that unusual after all. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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