I attended an EGM recently and was surprised the lawyer was saying that if there are, say, 40% of owners at the meeting (including proxies) 20% would be needed to become a commitee member - is this right? and if so does anyone have the relevant section? I can't find it - thanks.

The topic of the EGM is not relevant, any EGM vote requires 50% of attendants to vote in favour. If the topic of the EGM was selection of committee members then this should be fine. In your case it sounds like 20% (as a % of 100% co-owners) as half of 40% (volume of co-owner attending the EGM) being 50% of the meeting makes it a positive vote, does that make sense??

The topic of the EGM is not relevant, any EGM vote requires 50% of attendants to vote in favour. If the topic of the EGM was selection of committee members then this should be fine. In your case it sounds like 20% (as a % of 100% co-owners) as half of 40% (volume of co-owner attending the EGM) being 50% of the meeting makes it a positive vote, does that make sense??

Hi - thanks - so this applies to the AGM too? EVERY resolution MUST achieve 50% of the 'available' votes including proxies? I ask as some commitee members were elected with less than 50% for 2 places on commiteee but beating the 3rd candidate - surely in this case they neeeded 50% of the 40% votes available? I must say they could have drafetd the law better!