"being married entitles you to 50% of the GAINS (including debts) made during the marriage" quote from another thread by Mario 2008. As I don't want to hijack the other thread from its OP, I put it here.

Normally I would ignore the wording in the quote as wrong, but as Mario is known as a very knowledgeable poster, it made a few questions pop up in my head:

Does it matter if the property is aquiered before or during marriage?

If the property is bought during marriage, paid by the farang husband (papertrail of money OK), in wifes name (with the usual not legally paper signed at the landoffice). If I read Mario correct here, the husband should walk away with his investment+half of the profit, and the wife with half of the profit ?? Sounds to good to be true.

Might very well be to good to be true. Mario is right most of the time, but this is a family court judgement in a divorce. As in any court a good lawyer can make a difference. Think land/house aquired after marriage would be comunal property. Then there are those little pesky things about you can't loan your wife money etc ergo you gave her the money to buy in the first place. Think the best lawyer possible is the only way to go, or make an agreement without the court. Jim

Of course it matters if the property was acquired before or during the marriage, as you only split what was acquired during the marriage.

Land is a bit more difiicult, but judges do award foreign spouses half of the value. But as said, good lawyer should make a difference. One can always discuss what the value of soemthing is and how it will be calculated. That are questions for a competent lawyer.

Words of wisdom from a man who knows more than i will ever know. Jim