Thai Mother Wanting To Visit Different European Countries

[torrenova]

Say you have a Thai lady who wants to visit the UK and Holland. Now if she gets a visa for the UK, presumably she would need another visa for Holland - yes ? Do you really have to jump through all the hoops again or is there some special dispensation ? Would she actually need a visa for each different european country she wished to visit ?

In this example she has a kid with a UK father and has been to europe before, though not to the UK.

[CbrLad]

Say you have a Thai lady who wants to visit the UK and Holland. Now if she gets a visa for the UK, presumably she would need another visa for Holland - yes ? Do you really have to jump through all the hoops again or is there some special dispensation ? Would she actually need a visa for each different european country she wished to visit ?

In this example she has a kid with a UK father and has been to europe before, though not to the UK.

In you example above she would require a UK visa and a schengen for the Netherlands (Holland). Having a UK visa does not allow entry into any other country in Europe including the Republic of Ireland.

As for the rest of Europe if your GF has a schengen visa she will be able to enter any country which is part of schengen. As for which countries juust google schengen and you will see.

[torrenova]

I thought that but wondered if a visa for one EU country was issued then it might dispense with the need for another for another country visa within the same validity.

I presume that these visas are not like Thai ones and are all multi entry ?

One argument I could see would be if someone was issued a visa for say the UK but declined one for the Netherlands. Once could argue that the whole trip was based upon a need to visit the two (or more) places and thus it was an "all or nothing" situation.

Out of interest, how long are such visas issued for ? Is there a rule of thumb that say after X number of visits, an annual multi entry visa is issued rather than a more time resreicted one ?

[CbrLad]

I thought that but wondered if a visa for one EU country was issued then it might dispense with the need for another for another country visa within the same validity.

I presume that these visas are not like Thai ones and are all multi entry ?

One argument I could see would be if someone was issued a visa for say the UK but declined one for the Netherlands. Once could argue that the whole trip was based upon a need to visit the two (or more) places and thus it was an "all or nothing" situation.

Out of interest, how long are such visas issued for ? Is there a rule of thumb that say after X number of visits, an annual multi entry visa is issued rather than a more time resreicted one ?

What are you on about? You have to remember that the EU is not schengen and if a country such as the UK or ROI want's to retain control of their borders they have every right to do that. Your argument is like somone saying if you have a visa to enter Thailand you should have the right to enter the whole of Asia, it doesn't add up.

As for what they issue and for how long it depends upon the circumstances. When my now wife applied for her first visa to the schengen area, which was specificaly to France they issued a schengen visa as single entry for exactly the number of days we would be there, ie 3 days. Her latest visa for schengen also issued by France was 3 month multiple entry. Why the change I don't know, but I suspect it is because she now lives in the UK and is married (to a non EU citizen might I point out). Maybe next time it will be 12 month multi entry.