Cosmo88 Posted March 26, 2014 Share Posted March 26, 2014 PLEASE NOTE: My question is about COMPANY B: Company A is a limited Thai company with 51% Thai shareholders and 49% non-Thai shareholders. Company A owns 51% of the shares of Thai limited company B, while non-Thai shareholders own the remaining 49%. QUESTION: Is Company B considered as "51% Thai-owned", OR is it "26% (51% x 51%) Thai-owned" ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sunbelt Asia Posted March 26, 2014 Share Posted March 26, 2014 Currently they count by the total number of shares owned rather than by voting power. So for instance if you have a company with 100,000 shares in total and you had 51% (51,000 shares) held by Thais and the other 49% (49,000 shares) held by non-Thais and even if the shares that the Thais are holding are preferential share (diluted to 10 share equal to 1 vote) and the shares that the Non-Thais are holding are common/ordinary share (1 share equals to 1 vote) the company would still be considered as a Thai company based solely on the number of shares held by Thais. In this case Company B would be 51% Thai owned as Company A is still a Thai Limited Company based on the fact that it s a majority Thai owned. [sunbeltlegal][/sunbeltlegal] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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