Menken Posted March 19, 2023 Share Posted March 19, 2023 A quick question When a Thai who is married to a foreigner purchases property the foreigner must renounce ownership and claims. That is correct? What about usafrect or more of interest to me is that how is it viewed as a comon asset divisible equally upon divorce if the farang has signed away??? I was under impression all assets acquired during marriage split equally Thank you Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Peterw42 Posted March 20, 2023 Share Posted March 20, 2023 Userfruct is about access to a property, not ownership of a property. If you sign a document saying the property is not a marital asset, then its not a marital asset and not split during divorce. Userfruct doesnt change your ownership Any contracts between husband and wife, ie: a userfruct, become null/void in the case of divorce anyway. 1 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Menken Posted March 20, 2023 Author Share Posted March 20, 2023 3 minutes ago, Peterw42 said: userfruct, become null/void in the case of divorce anyway. Thank you Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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