Vat Questions

[Zen]

I read somewhere that

If I sell goods on consignment, the time when I deliver the goods to the retail shop is the first event that triggers the VAT liability. It seems that my argument that the ownership of the consigned goods is not transferred yet will not hold. I was told that as long as there's a transfer of goods, VAT has to be recognised, regardless of whether the goods on consignment have been sold or not.

Does that mean that the steps I have to take for consignment is:

1) Issue TAX INVOICE and deliver together with the goods to the retailer

2) When the retailer sells something, I will issue a RECIEPT for that particular item that he sold

Would appreciate some thoughts.

Thank you.