Cosmo88 Posted March 24, 2014 Share Posted March 24, 2014 Company A is a limited Thai company with 51% Thai shareholders and 49% non-Thai shareholders. Company A owns 51% of the shares of Thai limited company B, while non-Thai shareholders own the remaining 49%. Is Company B considered as "51% Thai-owned", OR is it "26% (51% x 51%) Thai-owned" ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sunbelt Asia Posted March 24, 2014 Share Posted March 24, 2014 Company A would be considered a Thai company, currently they are counting by the number of shares not the voting. So, let's say you have a company (100,000 shares in total) and you had 51% (51,000 shares) held by Thais and the other 49% (49,000 shares) held by non-Thais and the shares that the Thais are holding are preferential share (diluted to 10 share equal to 1 vote) while the shares that the Non-Thais are holding are common/ordinary share (1 share equals to 1 vote) this company will still be considered as a Thai company based on the number of shares held by Thais. If you are the owner of Company A then you would need to ensure that your Thai shareholders would be willing to go along with your decisions as a minority shareholder. [sunbeltlegal][/sunbeltlegal] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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