My wife and i are wishing to travel to France for a trip but i cant seem to find the cost of the visa on the application site. A previous post suggests that it may be free if we are married??

My wife has a settlement visa for here in the uk at the moment. Can i get some clarification on this matter please?

Kind Regards

I am not familiar with your status and you should enquire with the consular section or through this website https://www.tlscontact.com/th2fr/login.php

The fee for a multiple is 2542 Baht

If you are the citizen of an EU state, e.g. the UK, then your wife's Schengen visa will be free. Also, most of the questions on the application form and other requirements will not apply to her.

Thanks very much for your replies. Very helpfull indeed

I am looking at a Schengen for my wife too and as we are married we don't need to provide income proof etc. Just her settlement Visa for the UK and proof of our marriage it seems.

Nice and straightforward we'll be applying once in England next week.

We applied for the German Schengen by post, and used it for France with no problems at all !!

We applied for the German Schengen by post, and used it for France with no problems at all !!

Thats what we'll be doing - We'll apply by post to the French Embassy and will travel to Germany and Austria to see friends and family.

Strictly speaking, this is against the rules.

You are supposed to apply to the country of your main destination or, if touring, the country you will enter first.

You could be asked by either German or Austrian immigration why you have a French issued visa but have not been to France (UK to France via either country is a bit of a long way round!).

Others in this situation have told me that they got around this by saying that they're plans changed. What would happen if the immigration officer didn't accept this explanation, I don't know; up to you if you want to chance it.

Strictly speaking, this is against the rules.

You are supposed to apply to the country of your main destination or, if touring, the country you will enter first.

You could be asked by either German or Austrian immigration why you have a French issued visa but have not been to France (UK to France via either country is a bit of a long way round!).

Others in this situation have told me that they got around this by saying that they're plans changed. What would happen if the immigration officer didn't accept this explanation, I don't know; up to you if you want to chance it.

I was told you have to apply for the Country you first land in.

We will go byFerry to France and drive to Germany/Austria then back to France and Ferry home.

So I thought I was doing it right, we haven't applied yet I can apply at the German embassy if you think that better.

Strictly speaking, this is against the rules.

You are supposed to apply to the country of your main destination or, if touring, the country you will enter first.

You could be asked by either German or Austrian immigration why you have a French issued visa but have not been to France (UK to France via either country is a bit of a long way round!).

Others in this situation have told me that they got around this by saying that they're plans changed. What would happen if the immigration officer didn't accept this explanation, I don't know; up to you if you want to chance it.

I was told you have to apply for the Country you first land in.

We will go byFerry to France and drive to Germany/Austria then back to France and Ferry home.

So I thought I was doing it right, we haven't applied yet I can apply at the German embassy if you think that better.

You are correct : You may apply with the French authorities

Strictly speaking, this is against the rules.

You are supposed to apply to the country of your main destination or, if touring, the country you will enter first.

You could be asked by either German or Austrian immigration why you have a French issued visa but have not been to France (UK to France via either country is a bit of a long way round!).

Others in this situation have told me that they got around this by saying that they're plans changed. What would happen if the immigration officer didn't accept this explanation, I don't know; up to you if you want to chance it.

How is so?

As you have mentioned, one has to apply with the authorities of the main destination's country or port of first entry... they would not be asked anything as they are free to land in any country and then go to France and/or any other country.

People genuinely arrive in one country and visit other countries where they will stay longer than in the country they first enter : what is there not to be accepted by the immigration officer? One does not have to go to the main destination first.

Anyway, In the case of the OP, it does not matter as they reach France then drive

Edited May 18, 201115 yr by alyx

I have merely said what the rules say.

Obviously, if driving through France to Germany then France will be one's country of entry; even so the rules say that one should apply to the country of one's main destination, which is not necessarily the country one enters the area via unless one is touring.

The people who have told me they were asked had French issued visas but had flown direct to Majorca from the UK; maybe it's just the Spanish?