I realize that this subject has been discussed before, but to be honest it leaves me confused and I'm sure many others also.

In today's Bangkok Post there is a letter to the editor by Charles Morgan, part of his long post follows:

"How shocking, indeed, that Thai women married to foreigners have also been snapping up land. But what Penchan omitted to mention was that the ministerial regulation prohibiting this was repealed in 1999 because it was inconsistent with the rights of all Thais not to suffer discrimination on grounds of gender under the 1997 Constitution"

Could some of the real gurus on this subject (not wild opinion please) explain what effect the repealing of the law (if this is in fact true) means. For example, is it still true that a Thai lady married to a foreigner is breaking the law to own land in her name?

Further, does this mean that the recent comments by the Director General of the land department are faulty in some way?

Look forward to your comments please.

It's not true.

It has not been stated by any government official, anywhere, that the law allowing Thai women married to foreigners to own land would be rescinded. In fact even if they wanted to they'd find it very difficult indeed because it has already been proven to be unconstitutional.

The Bangkok Post's sensationalist reporting of that story and placing it on the front page was an abhorrent piece of journalism.

Edited August 27, 200916 yr by quiksilva

I think you read it back to front Quicksilva.

The article says that the law PROHIBITING Thai ladies from owning land ws repealed as unconstitutional, not that the law ALLOWING them to own land was repealed.

To answer the OP repealed means to revoke or annul so that the effect is that Thai ladies married to Farangs can own land.