That is absolute nonsense. Don´t mistake explanation with justification. That is as if you´d say: "the mass murder and genocide of the native Americans resulted from their presence on land which the European settlers wished to have for themselves." Historians emphasize that while the Umayyad and later Muslim presence shaped the timeline of the Spanish Inquisition, its direct cause was the Catholic Monarchs' drive to centralize royal and religious authority. Established in 1478 by Ferdinand and Isabella, the Inquisition was primarily a state-building tool to enforce religious uniformity among baptized Christians, targeting converts both Jewish and Muslim because both groups had converted to Christianity and the Church investigated them for secretly practicing their former faiths. Prior to the Inquisition, medieval Spain featured a multiracial and multireligious society where large Muslim, Jewish, and Christian populations interacted peacefully over centuries
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