gennisis 100 Posted September 18, 2010 Share Posted September 18, 2010 Can anyone say if the Thai practise of charging import and VAT duties on the carriage costs as well as the product is a universal practise or just in Thailand. I have no problem with the taxes on the cost of the imported item but having to pay duties on the cost of the carriage seems unreasonable. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Forethat 2515 Posted September 18, 2010 Share Posted September 18, 2010 Same everywhere. At least all the countries where I have lived and/or imported goods. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
robblok 51099 Posted September 18, 2010 Share Posted September 18, 2010 Its the same all over the world. I will explain why you pay over cariage cost too: Suppose you don't have to pay over carriage cost and im the seller... to help you id raise the carriage costs and minimize the product cost. This way you don't have to pay much tax. Governments don't like loopholes like that so they closed it. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
gennisis 100 Posted September 18, 2010 Author Share Posted September 18, 2010 Its the same all over the world. I will explain why you pay over cariage cost too: Suppose you don't have to pay over carriage cost and im the seller... to help you id raise the carriage costs and minimize the product cost. This way you don't have to pay much tax. Governments don't like loopholes like that so they closed it. OK..accepted that it is universal.....so how about this..... With the agreement of the seller the buyer lodges with him a sum of money that would be used to offset carriage costs on future orders.When this fund is exhausted it would be topped-up When an order is recieved the buyer is invoiced the cost of the goods and no carriage costs because carriage costs are deducted from the buyers 'pot'. The goods bill would therefor read 'carriage free' for that particular consignment....and attract less duties. :rolleyes: Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
robblok 51099 Posted September 18, 2010 Share Posted September 18, 2010 Its the same all over the world. I will explain why you pay over cariage cost too: Suppose you don't have to pay over carriage cost and im the seller... to help you id raise the carriage costs and minimize the product cost. This way you don't have to pay much tax. Governments don't like loopholes like that so they closed it. OK..accepted that it is universal.....so how about this..... With the agreement of the seller the buyer lodges with him a sum of money that would be used to offset carriage costs on future orders.When this fund is exhausted it would be topped-up When an order is recieved the buyer is invoiced the cost of the goods and no carriage costs because carriage costs are deducted from the buyers 'pot'. The goods bill would therefor read 'carriage free' for that particular consignment....and attract less duties. :rolleyes: There you go... unfortunately that is not the way most businesses do it. So you see its not a full proof thing. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
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