ElephantEgo Posted August 26, 2023 Share Posted August 26, 2023 I am entering a court case where our opposition has people who were working without a WP. On our side, I have a WP but under another of my companies (not the same company that is in the dispute, it was not added). Does this pose a problem for me? 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yellowtail Posted August 26, 2023 Share Posted August 26, 2023 yes 1 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Popular Post Dan O Posted August 26, 2023 Popular Post Share Posted August 26, 2023 Based on the sparce info list it sounds like you were working under the company thats in dispute but your wp is listed under a different company. If that's the case you were working without a wp. 1 1 1 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackcab Posted August 26, 2023 Share Posted August 26, 2023 Not if the company you have a work permit for has some type of business arrangement/contract with the company you don't work for, and the company you don't work for is receiving an invoice which includes your services and The job title and job description in your work permit lend themselves to such an arrangement. In general the Court won't bother too much about a work permit, unless the work permit is germane to the case. 1 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
freeworld Posted August 27, 2023 Share Posted August 27, 2023 ''Sparce'' lol Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
impulse Posted August 27, 2023 Share Posted August 27, 2023 To the OP... Please do a lot of us a favor, post back and close the loop once you figure out your answer. Several years ago there was news that moonlighting was okay as long as you had a valid WP. But I'm not going to claim to know the details and whether that's worked for anyone, much less in your particular situation. Then I guess there's the question of how (if?) you paid tax on your side gig, and whether that will figure in the case in front of you. In any case, please follow up. No guesses, please. 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OneMoreFarang Posted August 27, 2023 Share Posted August 27, 2023 I don't have an answer. But I am pretty sure a few years ago the law (or regulations?) were made more flexible. As far as I remember that was about the place of work and I think also about having a work permit with company A and also working for company B. What is still fixed, as far as I know, is the kind of work. If you have a work permit for doing work A you are not allowed to do work B. I agree with the previous post that I also like to read a follow up to this. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ElephantEgo Posted August 27, 2023 Author Share Posted August 27, 2023 Okay guys, I will keep you posted. I suspect the correct answer is what Blackcab wrote (consulting and invoices used make it fine) and whether tax has been paid and the work description fits. Also, I doubt it is a "criminal" offense in these types of cases but might warrant a small fine, if anything. Nice to know the court does not typically put much weight on this type of petty thing, if that is true. Anyways I will consult the lawyers and aim to report back in a week or two. 2 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mrwebb8825 Posted September 24, 2023 Share Posted September 24, 2023 I was "farmed out" by the school I taught at to another school 2 days a week. I still received my full salary from my school but understood they also received some funding from the second school. It was my understanding that the law was changed so that as long as you were being paid by school "A" they could "farm you out" to another school as long as you didn't get 2 salaries. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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