Can you directly difine what your accepted Norms are, or the ONLY conclusion is you are a paedophile

Unanswered question, only leads to conclusions

Ooh, quit the trolling, will ye?

Certainly a troll, and maybe now with another agenda ?

I don't care if this is Bedlam, I will not tolerate people calling others pedophiles. That's a very low blow to make to try making points in an unimportant discussion. Anyone else does it and they go.

cv

Certainly a troll, and maybe now with another agenda ?

I have been reading Thomas Merton's posts for a long time.

I don't agree with him on many things, but I don't dispute that he is an super-intelligent guy trying to make the rest of us idiots think by asking difficult questions about controversial issues.

Every time he starts a thread on pedophilia, someone starts insinuating that he is one. My guess is that, if he were, he would never touch on the subject so as not to draw attention to himself.

I know that I am not a pedophile - although I have been called one here - so I am willing to discuss and explore this issue, rather than just ignoring it as some here seem to be suggesting.

To me it seems absurd that grown adults can't discuss any subject to get ideas about how to make things better. Are we adults here?

Back to the topic. "British Attitudes To Sex, Partly responsible for Vietnamese Court Case."

This does not hold water, as any psychiatrist/ologist or sexologist etc. would tell you.

In many cases, Paedophilia is much like rape, an exercise in domination, and is a result of some, possibly genetic, type of crossed wires in the psyche. When one inspects many such people, one finds measurable difference in brain chemistry from the norm. Differences not found in homo or hetero-sexual people.

"Normal" sexual desire is designed by nature to enable a species to procreate. In general, it is not experienced by those too young or old, or otherwise incapable of procreation. Ask the hijras in India. Likewise, those who experience "normal" sexual desires are not attracted to pre pubescent children, incapable of bearing young.

The British attitude to sex has nothing to do with the goings on in Vietnam. Mr P. F. Gadd is an unfortunate man with, if you were to dissect it, crossed wires and chemical imbalance in his brain. He could have been born that way, or it could have come about through some injury, but being British or an ex pop star has nothing to do with it.

"Normal" sexual desire is designed by nature to enable a species to procreate. In general, it is not experienced by those too young or old, or otherwise incapable of procreation. Ask the hijras in India. Likewise, those who experience "normal" sexual desires are not attracted to pre pubescent children, incapable of bearing young.

I agree with most of what you say above, however, do you feel that that homosexuality is "abnormal"?

This is something that I'm not sure of although your argument is very convincing.

To Zzap and anyone else who wants to name call.

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The British attitude to sex has nothing to do with the goings on in Vietnam. Mr P. F. Gadd is an unfortunate man with, if you were to dissect it, crossed wires and chemical imbalance in his brain. He could have been born that way, or it could have come about through some injury, but being British or an ex pop star has nothing to do with it.

That pretty much sums it up.

I agree with most of what you say above, however, do you feel that that homosexuality is "abnormal"?

This is something that I'm not sure of although your argument is very convincing.

"Normal" sexuality seems to have no bearing on whether the subject is homo or heterosexual, in terms of brain chemistry. Certainly there are no measurable differences between the two.

Indeed, most people seem to lie somewhere on a scale between 100% straight and 100% gay. In other words, all people are to a greater or lesser extent bi-sexual, whatever their professed sexuality. Much as some people are extremely highly sexed and others barely need any sexual activity in their lives.

others barely need any sexual activity in their lives.

Is that possible?

others barely need any sexual activity in their lives.

Is that possible?

Your obviously not married then Brit

others barely need any sexual activity in their lives.

Is that possible?

Your obviously not married then Brit

Or a hjira

"Normal" sexuality seems to have no bearing on whether the subject is homo or heterosexual, in terms of brain chemistry. Certainly there are no measurable differences between the two.

Indeed, most people seem to lie somewhere on a scale between 100% straight and 100% gay. In other words, all people are to a greater or lesser extent bi-sexual, whatever their professed sexuality.

Would you say that most people - being "bi-sexual" - actually fantazize about same-sex encounters, or is this powerful urge somehow repressed?

I can't imagine most people being able to ignore nature's call.

I don't know how fantasising comes into the equation. It is not a measurable factor and to rely on verbal reports would throw too many spanners into the works.

The normal measurement is degree of sexual attraction, nowadays often measured in a laboratory using a computer morphing programme that is able to slowly change, for example, a series of purely female faces and figures into something somewhat androgynous and thence into butch male figures. Measurements are taken that accurately reflect the degree of attraction and therefore bisexuality the subject may possess.

I know of almost no female that will not admit to occasionally feeling attraction for a person of the same sex. Men tend to carry too much “butch” baggage to similarly admit their attraction for other men, but it is there nonetheless to some degree or other.

Men tend to carry too much “butch” baggage to similarly admit their attraction for other men, but it is there nonetheless to some degree or other.

Brokeback Mountain syndrome.

I don't know how fantasising comes into the equation. It is not a measurable factor and to rely on verbal reports would throw too many spanners into the works.

The normal measurement is degree of sexual attraction, nowadays often measured in a laboratory using a computer morphing programme that is able to slowly change, for example, a series of purely female faces and figures into something somewhat androgynous and thence into butch male figures. Measurements are taken that accurately reflect the degree of attraction and therefore bisexuality the subject may possess.

I know of almost no female that will not admit to occasionally feeling attraction for a person of the same sex. Men tend to carry too much “butch” baggage to similarly admit their attraction for other men, but it is there nonetheless to some degree or other.

I would have thought that this was a good theory, but it is not a 100% scientific fact, unless you ask the scientist that has come up with it.You could go into all soughts of variables with this...race, religion,country, attitude etc.All would be a differnt meaning depending on many different things. It might work for middle class bible thumpers in the mid-west, but could be totally wrong if you compared it with native Fijians from the Yasawa Islands...just my opinion.

All suppositions!!!!

If you want the answers then go talk to the offenders....they are the only ones who can answer the questions.

"Normal" sexual desire is designed by nature to enable a species to procreate. In general, it is not experienced by those too young or old, or otherwise incapable of procreation. Ask the hijras in India. Likewise, those who experience "normal" sexual desires are not attracted to pre pubescent children, incapable of bearing young.

So basically it's back to the question how young is young and how old is old?

Isn't it correct that nowadays the ability of girls and boys to procreate start somewhere between ten and 12 yrs old so as per your explanation it would not be abnormal to have sex with lets say a 12 yr old as long as he/she is fertile?

"Normal" sexual desire is designed by nature to enable a species to procreate. In general, it is not experienced by those too young or old, or otherwise incapable of procreation. Ask the hijras in India. Likewise, those who experience "normal" sexual desires are not attracted to pre pubescent children, incapable of bearing young.

So basically it's back to the question how young is young and how old is old?

Isn't it correct that nowadays the ability of girls and boys to procreate start somewhere between ten and 12 yrs old so as per your explanation it would not be abnormal to have sex with lets say a 12 yr old as long as he/she is fertile?

Some countries do, in fact, have an age of consent of 12:

http://www.avert.org/aofconsent.htm

Well, one point that may or may not escape some people.

Those considering this may want to consult an International Lawyer, before testing those laws in those countries.

Many western countries have introduced anti-underage sex acts to the various legislatures, the UK and Australia are very good examples.

These laws have what is known as Extra-territorial powers, so is doesn't matter where in the world these people are, if they are a UK or Australian citizen, they are subject to those laws.

At the moment, the statute in both countries is set to 18. So even though what these ofenders do in another country is legal, you can be prosecuted in their home country.

People may think you have evaded the law in your home country until the day they are rounded up and seen by their family with a bath-towel over their head.

If you think that is bad, wait until the offender gets to prison.

Well, one point that may or may not escape some people.

Those considering this may want to consult an International Lawyer, before testing those laws in those countries.

Many western countries have introduced anti-underage sex acts to the various legislatures, the UK and Australia are very good examples.

These laws have what is known as Extra-territorial powers, so is doesn't matter where in the world these people are, if they are a UK or Australian citizen, they are subject to those laws.

At the moment, the statute in both countries is set to 18. So even though what these ofenders do in another country is legal, you can be prosecuted in their home country.

People may think you have evaded the law in your home country until the day they are rounded up and seen by their family with a bath-towel over their head.

If you think that is bad, wait until the offender gets to prison.

That's simply not true of the UK. The offences you talk about are covered by section 72 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003. If you look at the end of subsection 2(a) you will find the word 'AND' which means that the alleged offence has to be an offence both in the country where it was committed AND in the UK. The fact that it's an offence in the UK alone is not enough. BTW the age of consent in the UK is 16 not 18.

72 Offences outside the United Kingdom

(1) Subject to subsection (2), any act done by a person in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom which-

(a) constituted an offence under the law in force in that country or territory, and

(b ) would constitute a sexual offence to which this section applies if it had been done in England and Wales or in Northern Ireland,

constitutes that sexual offence under the law of that part of the United Kingdom.

Endure not the case mate....

UK LAWS TO PROTECT CHILDREN OVERSEAS FROM EXPLOITATION THROUGH TOURISM

The Sexual Offences Act 2003 enables British citizens and residents who commit sexual offences against children overseas to be prosecuted in the UK.

Some of the offences carry penalties of up to life imprisonment and anyone found guilty will be placed on the Sex Offenders Register. All registered sex offenders have to notify the police when they intend to leave the country for 3 days or more. The UK police and the National Criminal Intelligence Service (NCIS) and Interpol are actively involved in monitoring child sex tourists and will prosecute where necessary.

http://www.fco.gov.uk/servlet/Front?pagena...d=1100182470588

Endure not the case mate....

UK LAWS TO PROTECT CHILDREN OVERSEAS FROM EXPLOITATION THROUGH TOURISM

The Sexual Offences Act 2003 enables British citizens and residents who commit sexual offences against children overseas to be prosecuted in the UK.

Some of the offences carry penalties of up to life imprisonment and anyone found guilty will be placed on the Sex Offenders Register. All registered sex offenders have to notify the police when they intend to leave the country for 3 days or more. The UK police and the National Criminal Intelligence Service (NCIS) and Interpol are actively involved in monitoring child sex tourists and will prosecute where necessary.

http://www.fco.gov.uk/servlet/Front?pagena...d=1100182470588

The part of my post in red IS Section 72 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 and it says exactly what I said it did. For an offence to be committed both Subsection 1(a) AND Subsection 1(b ) need to be true. Apologies for mentioning Subsection 2 in my original post - should have been Subsection 1.

I think enough has been said here.

I am closing this thread, not because I don't agree with the OP or others who have contributed to this thread, rather, it is taking Thaivisa and the members into shaky ground.

//closed

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