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Indian restaurants work permit and licence...

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This is a serious question......

 

I was under the impression that if a foreigner had a business like a restaurant in Thailand the foreigner had to employ 3-4 Thais to get the business licence and a work permit....

Virtually all farang run restaurants I have seen do employ Thais so no problem there.......

On the other hand I see virtually no Thais working in any Indian restaurants...And I am not talking about 1 or 2 I am talking loads of Indian restaurants I have passed by over many years....

 

So can any one explain why Indian restaurants can operate without Thai employees ?       

Maybe the Indians working there are Thai citizens.

2 minutes ago, giddyup said:

Maybe the Indians working there are Thai citizens.

Exactly, a lot of Indians are 2nd and 3rd generation Thais

2 minutes ago, giddyup said:

Maybe the Indians working there are Thai citizens.

Yes, indeed so.

12 minutes ago, giddyup said:

Maybe the Indians working there are Thai citizens.

Yes. This also applies to many of the Indian or Pakistani looking touts which you find in front of see food restaurants or who try to sell you a suit, the majority of them are actually Thais.

  • Author
27 minutes ago, giddyup said:

Maybe the Indians working there are Thai citizens.

Ok fair enough and I am sure this is a logical explanation for SOME of the Indian restaurants....BUT lets take Pattaya...Their must be 100s of Indian restaurants now...Most have opened in the last 5-6 years....I just dont think its possible they are ALL owned by Thai citizens....  

Yes you need 4 employes per workpermit if you not married or 2 if you married, but a lot use "ghost"employes to run the business....

38 minutes ago, fforest1 said:

Ok fair enough and I am sure this is a logical explanation for SOME of the Indian restaurants....BUT lets take Pattaya...Their must be 100s of Indian restaurants now...Most have opened in the last 5-6 years....I just dont think its possible they are ALL owned by Thai citizens....  

I doubt the legitimacy of it also.  I have seen in one or two of those little restaurants a Thai lady stop by that clearly was the owner.   I suspect that many of those "Indian" restaurants are actually Thai "owned", albeit probably bending the law, and the store money probably was fronted by Indians.  Assuming that for a moment, are there any rules for Thai owned businesses about how many people they must employ?  I kind of doubt there is, so I think my theory holds water?

43 minutes ago, fforest1 said:

Ok fair enough and I am sure this is a logical explanation for SOME of the Indian restaurants....BUT lets take Pattaya...Their must be 100s of Indian restaurants now...Most have opened in the last 5-6 years....I just dont think its possible they are ALL owned by Thai citizens....  

1178....is the number to grass people up

1 hour ago, giddyup said:

Maybe the Indians working there are Thai citizens.

But the number of Indian restaurants in Pattaya now would mean that Thai Indians must have abandoned the rest of the country for here.

 

The question is how long can they afford to sit in their empty caffs which look to be doing even less business than the average farang bar.?

  • Author
4 minutes ago, gk10002000 said:

I doubt the legitimacy of it also.  I have seen in one or two of those little restaurants a Thai lady stop by that clearly was the owner.   I suspect that many of those "Indian" restaurants are actually Thai "owned", albeit probably bending the law, and the store money probably was fronted by Indians.  Assuming that for a moment, are there any rules for Thai owned businesses about how many people they must employ?  I kind of doubt there is, so I think my theory holds water?

This might very well be correct.....

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