A quick question

 

When a Thai who is married to a foreigner purchases property the foreigner must renounce ownership and claims. That is correct?

 

What about usafrect or more of interest to me is that how is it viewed as a comon asset divisible equally upon divorce if the farang has signed away???

 

I was under impression all assets acquired during marriage split equally

 

Thank you

Userfruct is about access to a property, not ownership of a property. If you sign a document saying the property is not a marital asset, then its not a marital asset and not split during divorce. Userfruct doesnt change your ownership

Any contracts between husband and wife, ie: a userfruct, become null/void in the case of divorce anyway.

3 minutes ago, Peterw42 said:

userfruct, become null/void in the case of divorce anyway.

Thank you